Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 18:22
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you caught a shoplifter at your yard sale, how would you handle it?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why am I so tired of seeing homeless people all over the place?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.